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02-07-2011, 04:21 PM
Hawkey Town 18
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Join Date: Jun 2009
Location: Chicago, IL
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I am completely befuddled by the above. I have no idea what the purposes of 10/20, 25/50, and 10/20 comparisons are. Can anyone else please make sense of this for me?

I will say this, Johnny: The relative values of players further down the pecking order can be variable, but one thing has been pretty constant - top-end talent. There have not been many times in history where we can say the best 2-3 players in the world are significantly better or worse than at other times. This is why BM67's "vs. #2" comparisons have been championed by me in the past year and why a few others have started to catch onto it.

I just don't see how this relates to what you're doing, at all.
The 5th and 10th O6 spots were completely chosen at random just to use as an example. The spots for the other eras are 5th and 10th with an adjustment for bigger league size. This way they are comparing the same percentile rank of 1st line forwards.

If this study were to really work, one would have to do a large amount of comparisons like the one I did above. Obviously comparing 5th and 10th alone tells us nothing.

I'm doing a bad job explaining this, and all in all, it's too big a project for me to actually do, so we might as well stop talking about it. Although, I think in theory it would work.

Last edited by Hawkey Town 18: 02-07-2011 at 04:26 PM.
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