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04-25-2012, 04:47 PM
Cipuli iemet ripuli
Join Date: Dec 2011
Originally Posted by
You don't have to be in the top division to play close games against top division teams. As jekoh said, they were only in the top division because of the requirement that at least one Asian team be in the top division at the time.
I mentioned the Asian qualification twice already, yes. What is your point though? Have you seen that Japanese team play, have you followed the Korean NT? What makes you think that South Korea isn't worse than Japan?
Just take a look at their record and you'll see that they're worse.
I'm not sure what the argument is even about anymore. Korea is still having blowouts against Japan and Italy. What more proof exactly do you want?
And of course Italy had a decent team at the time - because they naturalized foreigners to be eligible for the Olympics. South Korea can do this too.
Italy had a decent team in the 90s, they had a decent team in the previous decade and they still have a semi-decent team now. The same applies to the Japanese side.
Italy and Japan had no chance of winning a medal either, so why make the rules different for Korea?
No one's talking about winning medals. Most teams in the competition realistically don't have a chance at winning a medal.
What I'm saying is that they have no chance of getting a single point in the tournament. It's like sending a U-18 or a women's team in. They're basically not a part of the competition.
Why shouldn't they be in?
a) it makes their games unwatchable, so the tournament is less interesting overall;
b) it is unfair towards the teams in the other group that would have to play 1 full competitive match more than the teams in the Korean group;
c) it's unfair towards the teams that won't make the tournament (there are chances that teams like Slovakia, Norway, Denmark, Belarus, Latvia, Germany would all have to play a pre-qualification entry tournament and there are only 3 spots available, if the system stays the same until 2018).
The point of having them participate is that they are the host nation and the host nation traditionally has an automatic berth.
That's another issue. Technically they have an automatic berth and that's another argument, we can argue about that, just don't compare them to Japan or Italy - such comparison is invalid, which is the point I'm trying to make here.
Whatever your opinion of it is, it is completely legal and regularly done. It's not "pointless" if a player is willing to go out of his way to become eligible to participate for a national team he identifies with.
If you have citizenship and have played at least 2 years in that country (4 if you played for a different national team previously), you are eligible according to the IIHF. These are actually pretty strict rules compared to most other sports.
"He identifies with" are the key words here. Getting some random Canadians is just plain stupid. Let's just send the Canadian B team then and tell them to play with the Korean shirts. Getting players of Korean descent is perfectly fine.
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