Has Russia overtaken the #1 spot in World Hockey?
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11-30-2012, 06:19 PM
Join Date: Dec 2010
Originally Posted by
J17 Vs Proclamation
This is nonsense.
Why do people reference one off games as definitive evidence that the reverse cannot happen. It isn't like we are talking about an elite team facing a good team. Both teams are filled with exceptional players and are capable of beating each other in any game. Variables like goaltending, lucky bounces, deviation in performances from top players, one exceptional play, discipline or even the flu can alter the results of these games.
The NHL has relatively parity. So why wouldn't international ice hockey?
At the elite elite elite level, the outcome of a game between two competitors can vary each time they meet.
OT : Mr Kanadensisk, you're not even a funny troll. If you're going to troll, please inject some humour into it.
I agree completely. We have people claiming "superiority" for winning the '72 series, the Canada Cup, etc., but look at the margins of victory and defeat in these tournaments. In the '72 series, after 8 games, total goals were tied and the margin of victory for Canada was one goal. In the '81 Canada Cup, Canada beat the Soviets in the round robin, 7-3, but then lost to the same team 8-1 in the Final. In the '84 Canada Cup, the Soviets beat Canada in the round robin, 6-3, but then lost to the Canadians in the Semi-Final, 3-2 (OT). In the '87 Canada Cup, Canada and the Soviets tied in the round robin, 3-3, and then had three consecutive 6-5 games in the final. How in the World can you infer superiority from those contests, which were virtually dead heats? The whole argument is completely absurd.
As for Mr. Kanadensisk, don't waste your breath. He adopts the most ludicrous positions, and then plays games allegedly defending them. Arguing with him is not worth the key strokes.
Last edited by Yakushev72: 11-30-2012 at
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