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12-06-2012, 04:44 PM
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Join Date: Oct 2002
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Originally Posted by VeteranNetPresence View Post
the previous CBA doesn't exist any more, of course it is irrelevant. there is a reason why contracts have built in clauses stating that it is subject to only the current CBA, you wanna know why? because once it is expired it is - you guessed it- IRRELEVANT.
Show me where this is the case.

If the previous CBA were "irrelevant" they'd be negotiating from scratch, which they obviously aren't.

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