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12-12-2012, 10:52 AM
Shady Machine
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Originally Posted by Ugene Malkin View Post
6 years at 5.0 = 30m plus 25% variance(2.5) from the max number used in the deal.

(10.0> 7.5> 5.0> 2.5> 2.5> 2.5 = 30) 7.5 difference

Circumvention or not?

I don't think a 7 year will be needed to prove it is.

6 years at 5.0 = 30m plus 15% variance (1.2)from the max number used in the deal.

(8.0> 6.8> 5.6> 4.4> 3.2> 2.0 =30) Clear 6.0 difference

Still back diving

6 years at 5.0 = 30m plus 5% variance(0.3) from the max number used in the deal.

(6.0> 5.7> 5.4> 5.1> 4.8> 4.5 =31.5)

The most it can decrease is around 1.8 and that's not back diving over 6 years.

I'm not gonna do the even denomination to get it work out 100% by getting rid of the 1.5 it's over with the final number, but you can see it's impossible to back dive to the degree anything people are showing here and why the league would not like losing both 1 year and 5% variance together.

They may give that year to take it up to 6, but 5% is there to stay.
Is that really how the variance was calculated? I took it to mean that the salary in ANY one year in the contract couldn't vary more than x% from the highest year. Not every deal will have the max salary in year 1, so you're example wouldn't really work. Say the deal in the old world looked like:

5, 7.5, 10, 7.5, 5 That's a 7 million cap hit on a 5 year deal. However, the variance from the max in year 1 is 50%, not 25% like in your step down approach. By the logic you used above, this would still be an acceptable deal in the new proposal (assuming the players got the 25% variance). That wouldn't really make any sense. I could be wrong of course.

Based on my assumptions, you're first example would really have to be:

10,7.5, 7.5, 7.5, 7.5

Since the salary in ANY one year can't vary from the max more than 25%. Which to me is a reasonable thing to settle on. I would be fine with that deal any day.

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