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01-10-2013, 09:13 AM
Join Date: Feb 2008
Originally Posted by
Waiver rules in the old CBA clearly state a player loses his waiver exemption as soon as he hits 4 years OR 60 games, whichever comes first.
As far as the rules say, he's no longer exempt. Is there a loophole I'm missing? I fully admit my claim of "he's not exempt" comes from actually reading the CBA, so if there's a part I have not read that overrules the 4years/60game threshold, or there's something else I've missed, then I'll gladly concede the point.
I was confirming what you thought about Bishop.
Eligible for waivers = has to clear waivers for assignment.
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