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02-26-2013, 02:25 PM
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Originally Posted by Sturminator View Post
1989 is a strange year. It is almost as bad as 1970-71, where there is a good argument for using the #4 scorer as there is a greater than 10% gap between #2 and #3 and between #3 and #4. But that was the peak of Bruinsmania. 1989...outliers distributed over three teams? XXX an outlier? I don't buy it. If Gretzky was such an outlier why was Yzerman right there with him? And if Gretzky wasn't such an outlier, why should we think XXX was?
Yzerman and XXX have the 1st and 3rd highest non-Gretzky/Lemieux seasons of all-time and they were both in 1989. And 1989 isn't like 1993, where every first liner in the league scored a crap ton - it really was just the 4 on top. I'm really not comfortable using a 150 point season as the standard, when nobody outside the top 4 came close.

There was a poll on the history board recently comparing Yzerman's 1989 with Jagr's 1999 and the consensus (well, among all but the "older is always better crowd") was that it was pretty close.

A rule is what it is. Dreak says he followed it, and he clearly didn't.
I think "VS2, unless there is a difference of 10% or more anywhere in the top 5" is a perfectly legitimate rule and takes care of 1989 without having to fudge anything.

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