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03-01-2013, 01:43 PM
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Join Date: Jul 2010
Location: Sewell NJ
Country: United States
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The ruling makes no sense. If the Flames would have had to put him on waivers to get him to play then so should the Av's. It should go both ways. Either he is waiver exempt or he is not, why would this memorandum of understanding exclusively list RFA players for only their own team as exempt to waivers if they play past the start of the NHL in Europe but not allow the same courtesy to a team offersheeting, said RFA? The only reason an RFA wouldn't sign with his team before the start of the NHL season and the only reason they would make him exempt is because of an ongoing contract dispute, in which an offersheet is a valid way of resolving it. So why would they leave that obvious loophole in the CBA?

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